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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

QUESTION 261
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right.

 

Answer:

 

QUESTION 262
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the priority order in which the attributes are preferred when determining the best path on the right.

 

Answer:

 

QUESTION 263
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right

 

Answer:

 

QUESTION 264
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B.    Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C.    Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D.    If LSP authentication is in use, unauthorized devices can form neighbor adiacencies.
E.    Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.

Answer: CD
   

QUESTION 265
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)

A.    authentication
B.    MIB persistence
C.    message integrity
D.    authorization
E.    encryption
F.    accounting

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 266
Which two authentication mechanisms are supported by SNMPv3 ?(Choose two)

A.    SHA
B.    username without password
C.    username and password
D.    DES
E.    a community string
F.    265-bit AES

Answer: AC

QUESTION 267
Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

A.    MD5
B.    SHA-1
C.    Blowfish
D.    DES
E.    AES
F.    SSL

Answer: AB

QUESTION 268
Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The SNMP agent is enabled.
B.    The SNMP trap receiver is configured.
C.    All SNMP notification types are sent.
D.    SNMPv1 is the default version.
E.    SNMPv3 is the default version.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 269
Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method can the device use as an altermate to the pre-shared key?

 

A.    clear-text
B.    certificate
C.    802.1x
D.    null

Answer: D

QUESTION 270
Which option is the task of an IGMP Snooping Quenier?

A.    It facilitates populating the group membership tables on IGMP Snooping-enabled switches
B.    It sends PIM-SM messages to all multicast routers
C.    It can limit the number of multicast messages a host receives
D.    It coordinates the election of a mapping agent

Answer: A

QUESTION 271
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active?(Choose two)

A.    Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of quenes
B.    Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors
C.    Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
D.    Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E.    Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
F.    Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces

Answer: AE

QUESTION 272
Refer to the exhibit.What are two effects of the given configuration?(Choose two)

 

A.    The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 30
B.    Track object 100 goes down if Ethernet1/2 goes down
C.    Track object 100 goes down if all three interfaces go down
D.    Track object 100 goes down if Ethernet 1/0 goes down
E.    The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 40
F.    Track object 100 stays up as long as both Ethernet 1/0 and Ethernet 1/1 are up

Answer: CF

QUESTION 273
Which two statements about MPLS label stack encoding are ture?(Choose two)

A.    The TTL is significant only on the top label
B.    When a device forwards a labeled packet,it must copy the TTL of the outgoing label to the top label
C.    MPLS labels are encoded in little-endian format
D.    When an MPLS label stack undergoes the swap operation,it swaps the top and bottom labels
E.    When a device forwards a labeled packet,it must copy the TTL of the incoming label to the outgoing label

Answer: AC

QUESTION 274
Which statement is true about trunking?

A.    Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUs on nonnative VLANs when using a dot1q trunk
B.    DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL
C.    DTP is a point-to-point protocol
D.    When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk,management traffic such as CDP is no longer passes in that VLAN

Answer: C

QUESTION 275
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Choose two)

 

A.    The packet was source-routed
B.    The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254
C.    The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing tables has an ARP entry for the device at 10.9.132.254
D.    The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254
E.    The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254

Answer: DE

QUESTION 276
Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a packet that the path is sub-optimal?

A.    ip nhrp set-unique-bit
B.    ip nhrp shortcut
C.    ip nhrp cost 65535
D.    ip nhrp redirect
E.    ip nhrp record

Answer: D

QUESTION 277
Refer to the exhibit. Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the making policy on interface GigabitEthernet0/0?

 

A.    Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms
B.    Only traffic matching access-list streaming
C.    No traffic gets set AF41
D.    Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming

Answer: D

QUESTION 278
Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy?(Choose two)

A.    exit status
B.    event register keyword
C.    entry status
D.    namespace import
E.    body

Answer: BE

QUESTION 279
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Service cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infratructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitaes the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software application
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitaes the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems

Answer: A

QUESTION 280
Which option is can example of SaaS?

A.    Google Apps
B.    Amazon AWs
C.    Google App Engine
D.    Microsoft Azure

Answer: A

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